Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why are there posts saying the T in LGBT should be dropped? With what is happening in the US and beyond against the trans community cause for concern that if this is accepted could it be deemed acceptable to start on the LGB community again?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What disgusts you?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Show 1433: What Are the Hidden Dangers in the Air We Breathe? - The People's Pharmacy

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: